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From a hanafi mazhab, what is the ruling of the duration of iddah for a woman in her early 20s who is extremely irrregular as per health issues. Jzk.
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asked on Jun 23, 2016 and it has 525 views.
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From a hanafi mazhab, what is the ruling of the duration of iddah for a woman in her early 20s who is extremely irrregular as per health issues. Jzk.
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asked on Jun 23, 2016 and it has 521 views.
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salam everyone my question is Dr Qamer Zaman sab has tanslated sura Baqara and i can understant and in my mind it is really make sense ,the way he explained it. can you please tell me if he is right ? and is it the reality ? and is he right explaining suar Baqara ? please don't ignore this question waiting for your reply thanks. http://aastana.com/quran/Default.asp?SuraNo=2
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asked on Nov 04, 2015 and it has 941 views.
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It is true that after the era of rightly guided caliphs, Deen was split into Public and Personal segments. Personal laws were placed under the purview of theologians. The Imams are said to have driven the Ummah into sects and factions. The question arise on what account? Did they differ - on what to do or did they disagree on how to do? The History tells us that one of them was based in Iraq, the other lived in Medina. Yet another spent his life in Baghdad and the other worked in Iran. They may have suggested different ways of achieving the objectives of Deen according to the situation obtaining in their respective areas. Does it mean fragmentation of Deen? The problem, as I think, emerged when how to do, which can never be permanent, was made an obligatory part of Deen and given the name of Sunnah of the exalted prophet (saw). Is it incumbent upon me to go for Hajj using saddled animals as was done by the Messenger of Allah (pbuh)? I think No; because by using other mode of transportation, I am not deviating from what to do. I am only improving how to do. This should be true with other rituals. Why disintegrate on such differences? Discussing rituals some exegetes’ express strong disapproval of the prevailing structure of Islam on the plea that Allah did not say so. The irony of fate is that what they recommend is also not found in the Quran. They too count on what according to them is futile and what is good. Never will they quote from Quran or give precedent from the prophetic era. Hajj, for example, they say is like UNO. The question arise was it ever used as such since the day it was instituted? Are we devoid of History? What wonders me and a commoner is that all variants are proving their stance from the Book of Allah. Is this glorious book disposed to different understanding by different people? What then is the excellence of the book? I shiver to think of it. Does one require extraordinary intellect to understand the words of Allah? If so, then may Allah forgive people of ordinary prudence like me. I shall be highly obliged for guidance. Muhammad Latif Chaudhery
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Latif Chaudhery asked on Oct 24, 2015 and it has 625 views.
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It is astonishing to see that the transcribers write one line from Quran and expand it to more than 10 lines in other language. This usually they do by mixing similar verses obtaining from other chapters of the Quran and call it "Tasreef-e-Ayaat." Reader is perplexed to see that the translation has little or no relevance to the original text. Is it that Quran cannot be understood without being expounded? Arabic is said to be a rich language. Rich language means it has separate words for each shade of meaning. Allah says: "If all the trees on earth were made into pens, and the ocean supplied the ink, augmented by seven more oceans, the words of God would not run out". Why then it is assumed that Allah has used multi-meaning words? For example word "Nisa" has been used at different places. At some places it is taken as wife, at other just a woman. With some exegetes it stands for both male and female or what has been overlooked, or forgotten. A reader does not find answer to why Allah preferred not to use separate words for all these expressions?
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Latif Chaudhery asked on Oct 24, 2015 and it has 652 views.
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WHICH FORM OF RIBA IS PROHIBITEDM? Riba in Arabic literally means increase, gain or profit on money loaned. No where in Quran Riba is prohibited. The word used in Quran is Al-Riba (2:275). This is a proper noun pointing out to something not just riba. The question is which form of riba is then partcularized as Al-riba. If Quran is to be read with reference to the context then we must find out as to what were the circumstance under which increase, gain or profit on money loaned was prohibited? Examin Let us examination of e a few verses of Quran encapsulating the word Al-Riba in verse 2:275. Reading verse 2:272 to 2:280 we find that the issue discussed in these verses is, helping the poor deserving charity. Explaining how to help a poor, Allah says “ help them by way of charity and if you cannot help them by charity, then give them loan and charge no usury. Such people may not be able to pay back the loan in time. If so, give them more time or remit the loan as charity. The debtor being discussed here is the poor deserving charity. (2/272-280) Amazingly, every where in Qur’an, Al-Riba is contrasted with Charity. This obviously means over charging on loans to people deserving charity is prohibited. It has nothing to do with trading and commercial loans. Allah knows better.
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asked on Oct 23, 2015 and it has 654 views.
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Why the Quran is not the product of human thought?
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asked on Jun 15, 2014 and it has 1977 views.
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What is hereafter and why it is important?
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asked on Jun 15, 2014 and it has 1948 views.
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Is there a life in the hereafter?
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asked on Jun 15, 2014 and it has 1823 views.
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Are we equal as human beings?
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asked on Jun 15, 2014 and it has 2031 views.
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